IISFA II0-001 Certified Information Forensics Investigator (CIFI)
The Certified Information Forensics Investigator, (CIFI) Certification is a
designation earned exclusively by the most qualified information forensic
professionals in the field. Along with adherence to the highest standards of
ethical conduct, the CIFI epitomizes the highest standards in knowledge
requirements and expertise. The CIFI encompasses multiple domains of knowledge,
practical experience, and a demonstration of expertise and understanding
accomplished through a rigorous exam proctored under the most controlled of
environments. Unlike many vendor certifications, the CIFI maintains vendor
neutrality and is independent of dependency requirements such as sponsored
training, purchasing of product, or requirements other than ability. In fact,
candidates may choose to sit for the exam without any restrictions other than
adherence to the IISFA code of ethics and the exam fee. The CIFI is recognized
as the only certification that truly represents the abilities of field
information forensics investigators and is the benchmark by which they are
measured. Earning the CIFI designation is a significant accomplishment and
identifies the best in the profession of information forensics investigator.
The Certified Information Forensics Investigator, (CIFI) Certification is
specifically developed for experienced information forensics investigators who
have practical experience in performing investigation for law enforcement or as
part of a corporate investigations team. The CIFI certification is designed to
demonstrate expertise in all aspects of the information investigative process
and is dedicated to bringing a level of consistency to the profession than can
be recognized outside the field.
CIFI Impacts Your Career and Your Organization Enterprises demand Forensics Investigator that possess the knowledge and
expertise to help them identify critical issues and customize practices to
support trust in and value from information systems.The skills and practices
that CIFI promotes and evaluates are the building blocks of success in the
field. Possessing the CIFI demonstrates proficiency and is the basis for
measurement in the profession.
CIFI Certification: Confirms your knowledge and experience
Quantifies and markets your expertise
Demonstrates that you have gained and maintained the level of knowledge required
to meet the dynamic challenges of a modern enterpriseIs
Is globally recognized as the mark of excellence for the Forensics Professional
Combines the achievement of passing a comprehensive exam with recognition of
work and educational experience, providing you with credibility in the
marketplace.
Increases your value to your organization
Gives you a competitive advantage over peers when seeking job growth
Helps you achieve a high professional standard through IISFA's requirements for
continuing education and ethical conduct
QUESTION 1
Firewalls are an excellent source of:
A. Details of system usage
B. Details of protocol usage
C. Forensic Evidence for malicious attacks
D. Port/service mappings
Answer: C
QUESTION 2 What technique of layered security design will allow for both investigation
and recovery after an incident?
A. RI Technology
B. Highly available systems
C. Overlap design approach
D. Honeypot placement
Answer: B
QUESTION 3
If a CIFI violates the ISFA code of Ethics, her CIFI certification can be
immediately revoked.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 The 1st amendment allows hackers to exercise free speech by altering content
on websites to express opposing viewpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B
QUESTION 5 The term "Browser Artifacts" refer to:
A. Web browser cache, cookies, favorites, history, auto complete information
B. Older web browser applications that have little or no security and allow for
unchecked use
C. Older web browser applications that can be used as a surveillance tool for
investigators due to their lack of security
D. Web browser cookies
Answer: A
QUESTION 6 All of the following are methods of auditing except:
A. Internal audit
B. External audit
C. Thorough audit
D. 3rd party audit
CBAP Eligibility To earn the CBAP designation, candidates must:
Complete a minimum of 7,500 hours of Business Analysis Work experience in the
last 10 years.
Within this experience, a minimum of 900 hours completed in 4 of the 6 BABOK®
Guide Knowledge Areas, for a total of at least 3,600 of the required 7,500
total.
Complete a minimum of 35 hours of Professional Development in the last 4 years.
Provide two references.
Agree to Code of Conduct.
Agree to Terms and Conditions.
Pass the exam.
CBAP Competencies
Is CBAP right for you? The CBAP certification is for:
Individuals with significant experience in business analysis
Individuals with a CCBA™ designation
Product Managers
Non-BA consultants
Trainers
Hybrid Business Analysis professionals, including: Project Manager, Testers,
Quality Assurance (QA) professionals, Change/Transformation Managers, and
Designers
Highlight Your Expertise The Certified Business Analysis Professional™ (CBAP®) offers members of the
BA community a variety of benefits, including:
Demonstrated senior knowledge and professional competence
Marketability, employability and earning potential
Success and path to leadership
CBAP recognizes your expertise in multiple business domains and your ability to
tackle more complex projects, work with stakeholders to define and manage their
business requirements, drive business processes, lead the BA effort, and
identify opportunities to achieve better business results.
The IIBA® Annual Business Analysis Salary Survey reports that the average salary
of respondents with CBAP® certification holders is 13% higher on average in
earnings in comparison to non-certification holders.
QUESTION 1 What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the
solution has been implemented in production by a vendor?
A. Total ownership costing
B. Lifecycle maintenance fees
C. Sustainability fees
D. Total cost of ownership
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Enterprise analysis creates just five outputs.
Which one of the following is an output of the enterprise analysis tasks?
A. Assumptions and constraints
B. Stakeholder concerns
C. Solution performance assessment
D. Solution approach
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 3 All of the following stakeholders participate in the prioritization of
requirements except for which one?
A. Implementation subject matter expert
B. Project team
C. Domain subject matter expert
D. Project manager
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked
that you create a model of the
requirements so the stakeholders can better understand the requirements and the
project as a whole.
Which of the following statements best describes a model?
A. Models are slices of the project solution.
B. Models simplify the requirements for common stakeholders.
C. Models are statistics for the return on investment, time saved, and other
mathematics.
D. Models abstract and simplify reality.
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 What plan will describe the stakeholder groups, communication needs, and the
level of formality that is appropriate for the requirements?
A. Requirements management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Scope management plan
D. Business analysis communication plan
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 You are the business analyst for a smaller project where there are few
requirements. Management would still like you to create a method to trace the
few requirements for this project.
What type of matrix would be best in this instance?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. RACI matrix
C. Coverage matrix
D. Requirements trace matrix
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 7 You are the business analyst for your organization and have many solutions
available to an identified problem.
You would like a way to quickly and fairly determine which solution is the best
choice for your organization.
Which of the following approaches would allow you to determine the top-rated
solutions for your organization?
A. Scoring system
B. Acceptance and evaluation criteria
C. Vendor assessment
D. Voting system
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 When an organization is using a change-driven approach to business analysis,
how are communications managed?
A. Communications in a change-driven approach to business analysis focus more on
the frequency of communication.
B. Communications in a change-driven approach typically use face-to-face
channels.
C. Communications in a change-driven approach focus more on formal
communications.
D. Communications in a change-driven approach are all ad hoc.
Professional Collaboration Engineer A Professional Collaboration Engineer transforms business objectives into
tangible configurations, policies, and security practices as they relate to
users, content, and integrations. Collaboration Engineers leverage their
understanding of their organization’s mail routing and identity management
infrastructure to enable efficient and secure communication and data access.
Operating with an engineering and solutions mindset, they use tools, programming
languages, and APIs to automate workflows. They look for opportunities to
educate end users and increase operational efficiency while advocating for G
Suite and the Google toolset.
The Professional Collaboration Engineer exam assesses your ability to:
Plan and implement G Suite authorization and access
Manage user, resource, and Team Drive lifecycles
Manage mail
Control and configure G Suite services
Configure and manage endpoint access
Monitor organizational operations
Advance G Suite adoption and collaboration
Related job roles: IT systems administrator, cloud solutions engineer,
enterprise collaboration engineer, systems engineer About this certification exam
Length: 2 hours
Registration fee: $200 (plus tax where applicable)
Languages: English, Japanese
Exam format: Multiple choice and multiple select, taken in person at a test
center. Locate a test center near you.
Prerequisites: None
Recommended experience: 3+ years of industry experience including 1+ year G
Suite administration experience.
1. Review the exam guide The exam guide contains a complete list of topics that may be included on
the exam. Review the exam guide to determine if your skills align with the
topics on the exam.
2. Training
G Suite logo
G Suite Administration Specialization
Register
Professional Collaboration Engineer Practice Exam
Check your readiness for the Collaboration Engineer exam
Learn more
3. Hands-on practice This exam is designed to test technical skills related to the job role. In
addition to being familiar with the day-to-day tasks carried out by the G Suite
administrator, use the hands-on labs available on Qwiklabs to learn about G
Suite integrations to level up your knowledge and skills.
4. Additional resources In-depth discussions on the concepts and critical components of G Suite:
5. Assess your knowledge Familiarize yourself with the types of questions that will be on the exam.
Check your readiness to take this exam.
6. Schedule your exam Register and find a location near you.
QUESTION 1 Madeupcorp.com is in the process of migrating from a third-party email
system to G Suite. The VP of
Marketing is concerned that her team already administers the corporate AdSense,
AdWords, and YouTube
channels using their @madeupcorp.com email addresses, but has not tracked which
users have access to
which service. You need to ensure that there is no disruption.
What should you do?
A. Run the Transfer Tool for Unmanaged users.
B. Use a Google Form to survey the Marketing department users.
C. Assure the VP that there is no action required to configure G Suite.
D. Contact Google Enterprise Support to identify affected users.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Your company has an OU that contains your sales team and an OU that contains
your market research team.
The sales team is often a target of mass email from legitimate senders, which is
distracting to their job duties.
The market research team also receives that email content, but they want it
because it often contains
interesting market analysis or competitive intelligence. Constant Contact is
often used as the source of these
messages. Your company also uses Constant Contact for your own mass email
marketing. You need to set
email controls at the Sales OU without affecting your own outgoing email or the
market research OU.
What should you do?
A. Create a blocked senders list as the Sales OU that contains the mass email
sender addresses, but bypass this setting for Constant Contact emails.
B. Create a blocked senders list at the root level, and then an approved senders
list at the Market Research OU, both containing the mass email sender addresses.
C. Create a blocked senders list at the Sales OU that contains the mass email
sender addresses.
D. Create an approved senders list at the Market Research OU that contains the
mass email sender addresses.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 Your organization is part of a highly regulated industry with a very high
turnover. In order to recycle licenses
for new employees and comply with data retention regulations, it has been
determined that certain G Suite
data should be stored in a separate backup environment.
How should you store data for this situation?
A. Use routing rules to dual-deliver mail to an on-premises SMTP server and G
Suite.
B. Write a script and use G Suite APIs to access and download user data.
C. Use a third-party tool to configure secure backup of G Suite data.
D. Train users to use Google Takeout and store their archives locally.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 Your organization is on G Suite Enterprise and allows for external sharing
of Google Drive files to facilitate
collaboration with other G Suite customers. Recently you have had several
incidents of files and folders being
broadly shared with external users and groups. Your chief security officer needs
data on the scope of external
sharing and ongoing alerting so that external access does not have to be
disabled.
What two actions should you take to support the chief security officer's
request? (Choose two.)
A. Review who has viewed files using the Google Drive Activity Dashboard.
B. Create an alert from Drive Audit reports to notify of external file sharing.
C. Review total external sharing in the Aggregate Reports section.
D. Create a custom Dashboard for external sharing in the Security Investigation
Tool.
E. Automatically block external sharing using DLP rules.
Number of questions: 60
Number of questions to pass: 42
Time allowed: 90 mins
Status: Live
This exam consists of 7 sections described below.
Section 1: Basic Architecture Register an Asset in Maximo
Review Asset Performance Management Workflows
Describe the deployment options (SaaS,hybrid on-prem)
Section 2: Watson Internet of Things Platform Register a Device Type and devices
Setting up Device Security Policy
Connect a device to the Platform
Managing device events to Watson IoT Platform
Define Physical and Logical Interfaces
Verifying data in the data lake
Section 3: Asset Health Insights Describe the approach for configuring the Reliability Engineering Work
Center in Asset Health Insights
Create or use existing Scoring Factors and Meters
Create Asset Health scoring system
Configure Asset Health drivers
Describe the role of Failure Reporting in Asset Health Insights
Describe the process for configuration of IoT Connection Service and Asset
Device Mapping in Asset Health Insights
Section 4: Predictive Maintenance Insights Describe how to obtain Predictive Maintenance Insights credentials
Download out of the box model templates and import to Watson Studio
Configure notebooks to point to users Predictive Maintenance Insights
environment
Run notebook to train the model
Setup schedule for Predictive Maintenance Insights model scoring
View Predictive Maintenance Insights predictions
Section 5: Equipment Maintenance Assistant Describe Equipment Maintenance Assistant Content Curation Process
Explain Equipment Maintenance Assistant (Watson Discovery) Relevancy Training
Review and Refine Equipment Maintenance Assistant Results
Section 6: Initial Setup Describe the data consumed by Asset Health Insights
Set up MAHI and Maximo to point to Predictive Maintenance Insights tenant
Obtain Watson Studio and Machine Learning environments
Section 7: Customization and Configuration Describe the 5 out of the box templates
Customize Preventive Maintenance Insights model
Describe the role of custom algorithms
The sample test is designed to give the candidate an idea of the content and
format of the questions that will be on the certification exam. Performance on
the sample test is NOT an indicator of performance on the certification exam.
This should not be considered an assessment tool.
Use the study guide to help pass this exam. A study guide is an easy to follow
document that will help you prepare for this exam. The guide is free and can be
downloaded immediately.
This exam has an Assessment Exam option: A1000-060 Assessment: IBM Watson IoT
Asset Performance Management Solution Architect V1
Assessment exams are web-based exams that provides you, at a cheaper costs, the
ability to check your skills before taking the certification exam.
This assessment exam is available in: English
Passing the exam does not award you a certification, and it is only used to help
you assess if you are ready or not to take the certification exam.
You can register for it at Pearson VUE and it will provide you a score report,
showing you how you did in each section.
Web Based Training
IBM Maxiomo Asset Performance Management On-Premises
Welcome to the home page of the IBM® Maximo® Asset Performance Management (APM)
On-premises documentation
Web Resource
Configuring the Reliability Engineering Work Center
After you install Maximo® APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises, you can give
users access to the Work Center and configure maps, weather data, and
notifications. You can also add cards or reset cards to view KPIs and queries.
When you log into the Reliability Engineering Work Center for the first time,
the Getting Started card guides you through the configuration of the product.
Product Overview IBM® Maximo® APM - Predictive Maintenance Insights SaaS focuses on the needs
of reliability engineers to identify and manage asset reliability risks that
might adversely affect plant or business operations.
Welcome to the IBM® Maximo® APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises
documentation
Welcome to the IBM® Maximo® APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises
documentation, where you can find information about how to install, maintain,
and use Maximo APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises and maintain and use IBM
Maximo APM - Asset Health Insights SaaS. For Maximo APM - Asset Health Insights
SaaS documentation, review the product documentation for the latest version of
Maximo APM - Asset Health Insights On-Premises.
IBM Maximo APM - Predictive Maintenance Insights SaaS
Maximo® APM - Predictive Maintenance Insights SaaS documentation, where you can
find information about how to maintain and use the Maximo APM - Predictive
Maintenance Insights SaaS product.
Exam Details The VMware Workspace ONE Design and Advanced Integration Specialist 2019
badge holder is a technical expert that understands how to design, deploy and
support the ongoing management of a Workspace ONE app catalog. Achieving this
badge validates a deep understanding of how to integrate and configure an
identity provider, define the correct application access rights with the help of
access policies, and how to achieve single sign-on and multi-factor
authentication.
Exam Delivery This is a non-proctored exam delivered through Pearson VUE. For more
information, visit the Pearson VUE website.
Badge Information For details and a complete list of requirements and recommendations for
attainment, please reference the VMware Education Services – Certification
website.
Minimally Qualified Candidate The minimally qualified candidate should be familiar with designing,
deploying, and supporting a Workspace ONE app catalog. They should understand
how to integrate and configure an identity provider. They should be familiar
with single sign-on and multi-factor authentication. Candidates should have
completed all recommended training courses for this credential. The successful
candidate will likely hold additional industry-recognized IT certifications or
accreditations. The MQC should have all the knowledge contained in the exam
sections listed below.
Exam Sections Section 1- Introduction
Section 2- Authentication Method Deep-dive
Section 3- Mobile SSO
Objective 3.1 Outline the work flow of iOS and Android Mobile SSO
Objective 3.2 Configure Mobile SSO for iOS native applications
Objective 3.3 Configure Mobile SSO for Android native applications
Section 4- Single Sign-On for Application Objective 4.1 Configure web application SSO with SAML protocol
Objective 4.2 Configure web application SSO with OAuth 2.0 protocol
Section 5- Azure AD and Office 365 Integration
Objective 5.1 Given a use case Azure AD with Workspace ONE, identify the
implementation flow that should be used.
Objective 5.2 Outline the steps of configuring Office 365 SSO with VMware
Identity Manager
Objective 5.3 Outline the steps of integrating Azure AD as a 3rd party identity
provider for Workspace ONE
Section 6- Integration with Okta Objective 6.1 Outline the workflow of Okta integration
Objective 6.2 Outline the steps of integrating Okta as the identity provider
Objective 6.3 Outline the steps of integrating Okta as the service provider
6.4 Objective: Add Okta applications to Workspace ONE.
Section 7- Additional 3rd Party IDP Integration Objective 7.1 Outline the steps of integrating with AD FS
Objective 7.2 Outline the steps of integrating with PING
Objective 7.3 Configure a 3rd party identity provider in the VMware Identity
Manager console
Objective 7.4 Configure authentication methods for the integrated 3rd party
identity providers
Objective 7.5 Modify access policies to accommodate the integrated 3rd party
identity providers
Section 8- Advanced Configurations
Objective 8.1 Configure the steps of the workflow of UAG identity bridging
Objective 8.2 Outline the steps of incorporating IP restrictions into
Conditional Access
Objective 8.3 Outline the high-level steps of configuring KCD with SEG
Section 9- Workspace ONE AirLift Objective 9.1 Outline the steps of Workspace ONE AirLift deployment
Objective 9.2 Configure environment settings in the Workspace ONE AirLift
management interface
Objective 9.3 Migrate collections and applications from SCCM to Workspace ONE
UEM
Objective 9.4 Enroll Windows 10 endpoints into co-management
Section 10- 10 Integrating with Horizon Objective 10.1 Analyze/Apply (Scenario) Configure VIDM connector for
Horizon.
Section 11- Workspace ONE Plan and Design Course Introduction
Section 12- Workspace ONE Plan and Design Fundamentals
Section 13- Identifying Use Cases Objective 13.1 Identify the key Workspace ONE UEM use cases
Objective 13.2 Identify the key VMware Identity Manager use cases
Objective 13.3 Identify the key Horizon use cases
Objective 13.4 Collect use cases and user experience requirement for VMware
solution design
Objective 13.5 Identify design considerations when joint VMware solutions are
integrated, (for example: WorkSpace ONE, UEM, and VMware Horizons.)
Section 14- Creating Logical and Physical Designs Objective 14.1 Design the high-level logical solution architecture
Objective 14.2 Analyze/Apply (Scenario) Validate the logical solution
architecture
Objective 14.3 Analyze/Apply (Scenario) Create the physical solution
architecture
Objective 14.4 Analyze/Apply (Scenario) Validate the physical solution
architecture
Objective 14.5 Analyze/Apply (Scenario) Design appropriate Workspace ONE
solution roll-out plan for end users
Section 15- Workspace ONE Solution Delivery
Recommended Course VMware Workspace ONE Design and Advanced Integration Training course
QUESTION 1 The latest Configuration Service Provider (CSP) release by Microsoft might
not always be visually available in Workspace ONE UEM to configure.
What should be used to create custom settings to distribute through Workspace
ONE UEM if that is true?
A. Download the add-on from my.workspaceone.com.
B. Click the Update button in the Custom Settings profile.
C. Use the Device Description Framework.
D. Export them from GPO.
Answer: C
QUESTION 2
An administrator configured a Service Provider app to authenticate through SAML
to the Service Provider from
VMware Identity Manager (vIDM).
Where is the signing certificate?
A. vIDM admin console: Catalog/WebApps/Settings/SaasApps/SAML Metadata
B. vIDM app console: Identity and Access Management/Settings/WebApps//SaasApps/SAML
Metadata
C. vIDM app console: Catalog/WebApps/Settings/SaasApps/SAML Metadata
D. vIDM admin console: Identity and Access Management/Settings/WebApps//SaasApps/SAML
Metadata
Answer: C
QUESTION 3 Which tasks need to be completed before a third-party identity provider
instance can be added in Workspace ONE?
A. Configure the Metadata on the third-party side to match Workspace ONE.
B. Verify that the third-party instances is SAML 1.0 compliant.
C. VMware Identity Manager service must reach the third-party instance.
D. Verify that the third-party instances is REST compliant.
Exam Name: Nokia Interior Routing Protocols
Exam Number: 4A0-101
Credit Towards Certifications: Nokia Network Routing Specialist II
Nokia Service Routing Architect
Mandatory Exam Prerequisites: N/A
Exam Duration: 90 Minutes
Exam Appointment Duration: 135 minutes. This is the exam duration plus a 45
minute tutorial on computer-based examinations.
Number of Questions: 60
Language: English
For a list of candidate exam topics, please refer to the list of course
objectives and modules in the course outline. The course overview page and
course outline can be found here.
Exam exemptions are available for individuals with IP certifications from other
organizations. Refer to the following link for additional details: Credit for
Other IP Certifications.
Price: $125 USD based on exam delivery in North America. Pricing in other
countries may vary slightly depending on country location.
Exams are delivered by our external test delivery partner, Pearson VUE. For more
information, access their website at www.pearsonvue.com/nokia.
QUESTION 1 When a router receives an IP packet, but does not find a match in the
routing table for the destination IP address, what actions are performed by the
router?
A. The packet is flooded out all router interfaces.
B. The packet is dropped and an ICMP unreachable message is sent back to the
source.
C. The packet is silently discarded.
D. The packet is flooded out all interfaces and an ICMP unreachable message is
sent.
Answer: B
Section: Volume A
QUESTION 2 Which of the following statements regarding distance vectors protocols are
true?
(Choose two.)
A. RIPv1, RIPv2, and BGP are distance vector protocols.
B. OSPF and IS-IS are distance vector protocols.
C. Routing tables are exchanged between neighbors; however, no routing table is
transmitted beyond the immediate neighbor.
D. Distance vector protocols use the Dijkstra SPF algorithm.
E. Routers that participate in distance vector routing protocols maintain full
knowledge of distant routers and how they interconnect
Answer: A,C
QUESTION 3 In an IP datagram, which of the following fields identifies the receiving
application?
A. The protocol field of the transport layer header.
B. The port field of the transport layer header.
C. The protocol field of the network layer header.
D. The port field of the network layer address.
Answer: B
QUESTION 4 Static routing will be used in a network between a corporate head office,
with many connected networks, and a
branch office, with one connection to the head office. Which of the following
best describes the likely configuration?
A. The corporate head office router will have a default route and the branch
site will have a more specific static route.
B. The corporate head office router and the branch office router will both have
specific static routes.
C. The corporate head office router and the branch router will both have default
routes.
D. The corporate head office router will have a more specific static route and
the branch office router will have a default route.
Exam Number 300-460 CLDINF
Associated Certifications CCNP Cloud
Duration 90 Minutes (55 - 65 questions)
Available Languages English
Exam Description
The 300-460 (CLDINF) Implementing and Troubleshooting the Cisco Cloud
Infrastructure is a 90-minute, 55-65 question assessment that is associated with
the CCNP Cloud Certification. This exam tests a candidate's knowledge and
ability to: setup Cloud infrastructure including physical and virtual Data
Centers; implement Storage infrastructure and connectivity; implement Network
infrastructure and connectivity; implement Compute; troubleshoot Cloud workflows
or applications; and identify infrastructure operational domains. Candidates can
prepare for this assessment by taking the Implementing and Troubleshooting the
Cisco Cloud Infrastructure (CLDINF v1.0) course.
The following topics are general guidelines for the content likely to be
included on the exam. However, other related topics may also appear on any
specific delivery of the exam. In order to better reflect the contents of the
exam and for clarity purposes, the guidelines below may change at any time
without notice.
1.0 Knowledge of Cloud Infrastructure 16%
1.1 Demonstrate practical experience of both physical and virtual Data Centers
1.1.a Validate physical connection to LAN, SAN
1.1.b Management connection
1.1.c Server ports to chassis
1.1.d Virtual fiber channel
1.1.e Domain Virtual Machine Manager (VMM)
1.1.f Configuring UCS service profiles, vNICs & templates
1.2 Setup hypervisor
2.0 Storage 21%
2.1 Implement storage infrastructure
2.1.a Block Storage
2.1.a.1 Zoning
2.1.a.2 Describe initiator and target relationship
2.1.a.3 Boot targets
2.1.a.4 Setup LUN/Volume on storage controller
2.1.b File Storage
2.1.b.1 Mount point vs. shares
2.2 Implement storage connectivity
2.2.a Configure vHBA
2.2.b Configure WWPN pool
2.2.c Configure WWN Pool
2.2.d Configure iSCSI pool
2.2.e Configure VSAN group
2.2.f Configure boot order/ boot policy
2.2.g Configure local storage / disk policy (RAID)
2.2.h Describe protected config
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